“150”, Aptitude Test Questions and Answers for ICT Officer II (Network Management) – e-GA.
ABSTRACT
This premium preparation guide contains “150”,
Aptitude Test Questions and Answers for ICT Officer Grade II (Network
Management) – e-Government Authority (e-GA). The questions are designed to
simulate the challenging nature of Tanzania’s Public Service online aptitude
tests, emphasizing network management, IP/MPLS, BGP, OSPF/IS-IS, IPv6, QoS,
VPNs, network security, firewalls, vulnerability assessment, monitoring,
troubleshooting, and incident response. Each question includes closely
related distractors, the correct answer, and a clear rationale to strengthen
both technical understanding and analytical decision-making. The guide is
intended to help candidates assess their knowledge, identify weaknesses, and
build the confidence required to perform effectively in a competitive aptitude
test.
Prepared by: ICT Officer II (Network Management)
Compiled by ICT Officer II (Network Management)
0628729934.
Date: August 30, 2026
Dear applicants,
This collection of questions and answers
has been prepared to help all of you to understand the key areas tested during
the interview. The goal is to provide a useful, and practical study guide so
you can all perform confidently and fairly in the selection process. I wish you
the best of luck, and may this resource support you in achieving success!
Warm regards,
ICT Officer II (Network Management)
For Personal Use by Applicants Preparing
for ICT Officer II (Network Management) - at Public Service Recruitment
Service.
ICT OFFICER II
(NETWORK MANAGEMENT) – e-GA
150 Aptitude
Test Questions and Answers
1. An e-Government Authority service is
connected to two upstream Internet providers through an edge router. Both
providers advertise the same destination prefix. The network engineer wants
traffic leaving the government network toward that destination to consistently
use Provider A, while still retaining Provider B as a backup. Which approach is
most appropriate?
A. Increase MED received from Provider A B.
Increase local preference for Provider A C. Increase AS-path length
toward Provider A D. Reduce the BGP hold timer toward Provider A
Answer: B
Rationale: Local Preference is a BGP attribute used
within an autonomous system to influence the preferred exit point for outbound
traffic, and a higher local-preference value is preferred. Therefore,
increasing the local preference of routes learned from Provider A makes the
government network prefer Provider A for outbound traffic while Provider B can
remain available as an alternative. MED is generally used to influence which
entry point another AS selects, AS-path manipulation is commonly used to make a
path less attractive, and reducing the hold timer affects session failure
detection rather than normal route preference.
2. A service-provider MPLS network has
several PE routers connected through multiple P routers. OSPF is functioning
correctly and all PE loopback addresses are reachable. However, an L3VPN
customer route is present in the routing table of the originating PE but is not
being installed on the remote PE. Which investigation is most appropriate
first?
A. Verify the customer-facing Ethernet
duplex settings B. Verify the P-router interface MTU configuration C.
Verify MP-BGP VPNv4 route exchange between PE routers D. Verify whether
multicast is enabled across the provider core
Answer: C
Rationale: In an MPLS L3VPN, the customer routes
learned by one PE are distributed to other PEs using MP-BGP, specifically
through VPNv4/VPNv6 address families depending on the deployment. The fact that
the provider IGP can reach PE loopbacks indicates basic underlay reachability,
but it does not establish that VPN routes are being exchanged between PEs.
Therefore, checking the MP-BGP VPN address-family session and route exchange is
the most appropriate first investigation. Interface duplex, core MTU, and
multicast can affect other services but do not directly explain the absence of
a VPN route on the remote PE when the problem is specifically route
distribution.
3. A network engineer observes that an
OSPF-enabled WAN has several paths between two routers. After a link becomes
unavailable, traffic immediately moves to another path, but the routing table
shows a route through an unexpected interface. The engineer confirms that all
interfaces are operational. Which factor should be examined first to understand
the selected OSPF path?
A. The cumulative OSPF cost of available
paths B. The BGP local preference assigned to the destination C.
The Ethernet MAC address of the next-hop router D. The TCP window size
used by affected applications
Answer: A
Rationale: OSPF selects paths based primarily on the
cumulative cost calculated from the topology information in its link-state
database. When a link fails and multiple alternative paths exist, the selected
interface depends on the resulting shortest-path calculation and configured
costs. BGP local preference is unrelated unless BGP is actually determining the
route, MAC addressing does not determine the OSPF shortest path, and TCP window
size concerns transport-layer behavior rather than IGP path selection. A proper
investigation should therefore begin with the OSPF topology, interface costs,
and resulting shortest-path calculation.
4. An ISP operates an MPLS network carrying
several customer VPNs. A customer reports that packets are reaching the correct
remote PE but are being delivered to the wrong customer routing context. The
provider confirms that the destination IP prefix exists in multiple customers'
networks. Which mechanism primarily maintains separate routing contexts and
prevents overlapping customer prefixes from becoming ambiguous?
A. OSPF area
separation B. BGP community tagging C. MPLS traffic engineering D. VRFs with
route distinguishers
Answer: D
Rationale: MPLS L3VPNs use separate Virtual Routing
and Forwarding instances (VRFs) to maintain independent routing tables for
different customers, while Route Distinguishers (RDs) make otherwise
overlapping customer prefixes unique within the VPNv4/VPNv6 control plane. This
combination allows different customers to use identical or overlapping address
space without their routes being confused with one another. BGP communities can
influence routing policy, and MPLS Traffic Engineering controls path selection,
but neither provides the fundamental customer-specific routing separation. OSPF
areas also do not replace VRFs as the mechanism for isolating customer VPN
routing contexts.
5. A government data-centre application is
reachable through two redundant WAN links. Both links remain physically up, but
one path begins experiencing severe packet loss. The routing protocol does not
remove the path because the interface remains operational. Which monitoring
approach would most directly identify the service-impacting condition?
A. Monitor interface administrative status
only B. Monitor routing-neighbor establishment only C. Monitor
latency, loss and path availability continuously D. Monitor the router
hostname and configuration version
Answer: C
Rationale: An interface can remain administratively
and operationally up while the path is still unusable because of congestion,
upstream faults, errors or intermittent packet loss. Continuous monitoring of
latency, packet loss and end-to-end availability provides a more accurate
representation of actual service health than simply checking whether an
interface or routing adjacency remains established. Interface status and
routing sessions are useful indicators, but neither necessarily detects
degradation that has not yet triggered a protocol failure. Configuration
versions and hostnames provide management information rather than direct
service-health measurements.
6. A network security team wants to identify
malicious traffic entering an organization's network while minimizing the risk
that the security device itself becomes a point of failure for legitimate
traffic. Which deployment best describes an IDS rather than an inline IPS?
A. The device analyzes a copy of traffic
without sitting directly in the forwarding path B. The device blocks
suspicious sessions before they reach internal servers C. The device
terminates VPN tunnels and filters decrypted application traffic D. The
device modifies routing decisions when suspicious traffic is detected
Answer: A
Rationale: An Intrusion Detection System is
generally deployed so that it can inspect traffic, often through a SPAN port,
network TAP or similar mechanism, without being directly inline with the
forwarding path. This allows it to generate alerts without automatically
becoming a transit dependency for normal traffic. An IPS, by contrast, is
typically inline and can actively block or modify traffic based on detected
threats. VPN termination and routing manipulation may be performed by other
security or networking functions but do not define the fundamental distinction
between IDS and IPS.
7. Two PE routers in an MPLS network provide
redundant connectivity to the same customer site. During maintenance on one PE,
customer traffic continues through the other PE without requiring manual
intervention. Which design principle is most directly demonstrated?
A. Route summarization B. High
availability through redundancy C. Broadcast-domain expansion D.
Static route persistence
Answer: B
Rationale: The ability of the service to continue
operating automatically after one PE becomes unavailable demonstrates high
availability achieved through redundant network components and appropriately
designed failover mechanisms. Route summarization reduces routing-table size,
while broadcast-domain expansion concerns Layer 2 segmentation. Static routes
may provide reachability in limited designs but do not by themselves establish
resilient service failover. A properly engineered redundant architecture is
intended to eliminate or minimize single points of failure while maintaining
service continuity.
8. A network administrator changes an OSPF
interface cost on a core link during business hours. Shortly afterward, traffic
shifts onto another path and several applications experience increased latency.
Which operational practice would have most effectively reduced the risk of this
incident?
A. Disable routing advertisements before
every change B. Increase router memory before modifying routing
parameters C. Apply the change without documenting the expected outcome D.
Use controlled change management with validation and rollback planning
Answer: D
Rationale: Changes to routing parameters can alter
path selection even when the underlying network remains operational. A
controlled change-management process should identify the expected effect,
define the implementation window, establish validation criteria, record the
change, and provide a tested rollback procedure if the outcome is undesirable.
Disabling routing advertisements would itself create substantial risk,
additional memory does not prevent incorrect routing decisions, and
undocumented changes make troubleshooting and accountability more difficult. In
a critical government or managed-service environment, controlled change
management is therefore essential.
9. An e-Government Authority network
receives a BGP route from an upstream provider. The route is accepted by the
edge router, but the organization does not want to advertise its internal or
private prefixes to that provider. Which control is most appropriate for
preventing unintended outbound route advertisement?
A. Apply an
outbound prefix filter to the BGP neighbor B. Increase the BGP hold timer on
the provider session C. Increase the OSPF cost toward the provider-facing
interface D. Modify the MED value of routes received from the provider
Answer: A
Rationale: An outbound BGP prefix filter controls
which routes an organization advertises to an external neighbor and is
therefore the appropriate mechanism for preventing unintended advertisement of
internal or private prefixes. This is an important operational and security
practice because accidental route advertisements can expose internal addressing
or cause routing instability and route leaks. The BGP hold timer controls
session failure detection, OSPF cost affects internal routing decisions, and
MED is primarily used to influence inbound path selection by another autonomous
system rather than to determine which prefixes are advertised.
10. A network uses OSPF as its internal
routing protocol. An engineer notices that a route learned through OSPF is
preferred over another route learned from a different routing protocol, even
though the other protocol reports a lower internal metric for its route. Which
concept best explains this behavior?
A. OSPF always overrides routes learned from
external protocols B. Administrative distance is evaluated before
protocol-specific metrics C. Lower metrics are globally preferred
across all routing protocols D. Interface bandwidth determines
preference regardless of routing protocol
Answer: B
Rationale: Routing protocols calculate their own
protocol-specific metrics, but when routes to the same destination are learned
from different routing protocols, the router generally first uses
administrative distance to determine which source is more trustworthy. Only
after a route from a particular protocol is selected does that protocol's own
metric determine the preferred path among routes from that protocol. Therefore,
a lower metric in another routing protocol does not automatically make that
route preferable to an OSPF route. The distinction between administrative
distance and protocol metric is fundamental to multi-protocol routing
decisions.
11. A Tanzanian government WAN carries voice,
video conferencing and ordinary data traffic over the same IP infrastructure.
During periods of congestion, voice quality deteriorates while ordinary file
transfers remain usable. Which mechanism is most directly intended to protect
delay-sensitive traffic during congestion?
A. QoS classification and appropriate
queuing B. Increasing DNS cache lifetime C. Increasing the BGP
hold timer D. Expanding the IPv4 address pool
Answer: A
Rationale: Quality of Service mechanisms classify
traffic and apply policies such as priority queuing, scheduling, shaping or
policing so that delay-sensitive applications can receive appropriate treatment
during congestion. Voice is particularly sensitive to latency, jitter and
packet loss, whereas ordinary file transfers can often tolerate greater delay.
DNS cache settings, BGP timers and address-pool size do not directly control
how congested interfaces allocate bandwidth among different traffic classes.
Effective QoS therefore provides the relevant mechanism for protecting critical
real-time services.
12. A network engineer receives an alert
showing that a firewall's CPU utilization has suddenly increased. At the same
time, the number of new connection attempts has increased significantly, but
legitimate application traffic appears normal. Which investigation provides the
strongest initial indication of whether the firewall is experiencing a
potential network-security event?
A. Compare the firewall hostname with the
previous configuration B. Analyze connection patterns, source addresses
and event logs C. Replace all network cables connected to the firewall D.
Increase the default TCP session timeout immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: A sudden increase in connection attempts
accompanied by increased firewall CPU utilization warrants investigation of
traffic patterns, source addresses, destination services, rates and
corresponding security logs. This can help distinguish legitimate traffic
growth from scanning, denial-of-service activity or another anomalous event
before taking disruptive action. Replacing cables is not justified by the
symptoms, and immediately changing session timeouts could alter system behavior
without identifying the cause. The hostname and configuration version may be
useful operational information but would not explain the sudden traffic-related
CPU increase.
13. A service provider is deploying an MPLS
network in which the provider's IGP is used to establish reachability between
PE loopbacks. MPLS labels are then used across the provider core. Which
statement best describes the relationship between the IGP and MPLS forwarding?
A. MPLS eliminates the need for any provider
IGP B. The IGP provides application-layer service classification C.
The IGP can establish the underlying reachability used by label-switched paths D.
MPLS replaces all routing information with MAC addresses
Answer: C
Rationale: In a conventional MPLS provider
architecture, an IGP such as OSPF or IS-IS establishes IP reachability across
the provider core, including reachability to relevant loopback addresses. MPLS
mechanisms can then use that underlying topology to establish label-switched
forwarding. MPLS does not inherently eliminate the need for an IGP, nor does
the IGP perform application-layer classification. MPLS forwarding also does not
replace routing information with MAC addresses; it uses labels to forward
packets according to the provider's configured architecture.
14. A network administrator suspects that a
VPN connection between a remote government office and a central data centre is
failing because of an incorrect security policy. The tunnel is established, but
users cannot reach internal application servers. Which test would best
distinguish a tunnel-establishment problem from a post-tunnel routing or policy
problem?
A. Check whether the VPN tunnel is
established and then test traffic through it B. Replace the remote
site's access switch before checking the tunnel C. Restart all
application servers before examining VPN policies D. Increase the VPN
encryption key length before testing connectivity
Answer: A
Rationale: A VPN can successfully establish its
cryptographic tunnel while traffic still fails because of routing, security
policies, selectors, NAT, firewall rules or return-path problems. Therefore,
confirming tunnel establishment first and then testing actual traffic through
the tunnel creates a logical separation between tunnel negotiation and
data-plane forwarding. Replacing unrelated infrastructure or changing
cryptographic parameters without evidence can introduce unnecessary disruption.
A structured diagnostic process should isolate the control-plane tunnel state
from the actual forwarding and policy path.
15. An organization operates dual Internet
connections and wants to influence how external networks enter its network
without changing its internal preference for outbound traffic. Which BGP
technique is generally more appropriate for influencing inbound traffic?
A. Increase internal local preference on
received routes B. Manipulate outbound advertisements using AS-path
prepending C. Reduce the router's interface MTU toward the preferred
provider D. Increase the OSPF cost of the internal default route
Answer: B
Rationale: Inbound Internet traffic is controlled
primarily by decisions made in remote autonomous systems, so an organization
cannot directly dictate the remote provider's preferred path. AS-path
prepending can make an advertised route appear less attractive through one
path, thereby influencing external networks to prefer another advertisement.
Local preference primarily controls outbound path selection within the local AS
and does not directly control how remote networks enter the organization. MTU
and OSPF cost do not provide an appropriate mechanism for influencing
Internet-wide inbound BGP path selection.
16. During a security audit, engineers
discover that several firewall rules permit broad traffic from entire address
ranges even though only a few application servers require access. Which
principle should guide the remediation?
A. Configuration simplicity by removing all
security restrictions B. Maximum reachability by permitting all
internal addresses C. Protocol neutrality by allowing every transport
protocol D. Least privilege by restricting access to required sources
and services
Answer: D
Rationale: The principle of least privilege requires
systems and users to receive only the access necessary to perform their
legitimate functions. For firewall policy, this means narrowing source
addresses, destination addresses, ports and protocols where the business
requirement permits it. Broad rules increase the potential attack surface and
make unauthorized access more difficult to detect and control. Removing
restrictions or allowing every protocol would weaken security, while maximum
reachability is generally inconsistent with a defensible security architecture.
17. A network contains multiple OSPF areas.
An engineer wants to reduce the amount of detailed routing information
propagated between areas while preserving reachability to summarized networks.
Which design technique is most appropriate?
A. Increase BGP MED values B.
Disable OSPF neighbor authentication C. Configure appropriate route
summarization at area boundaries D. Replace OSPF with static routes on
all core routers
Answer: C
Rationale: OSPF supports hierarchical design through
areas, and route summarization at appropriate area boundaries can reduce the
number of specific routes that need to be propagated beyond the originating
area. This can reduce routing-table size and limit the impact of certain
topology changes. BGP MED is unrelated to OSPF area summarization, disabling
authentication does not reduce routing information, and replacing a dynamic IGP
with static routes would undermine the scalability and resilience expected in a
service-provider or large enterprise environment.
18. A network operations centre receives
thousands of firewall and router logs every hour from several managed-service
customers. Analysts want to detect coordinated events that would be difficult
to identify by examining individual devices separately. Which capability is
most appropriate?
A. Local console
access on every network device B. Centralized log collection and correlation C.
Periodic manual configuration comparison D. Individual interface-status
polling without event analysis
Answer: B
Rationale: Centralized log collection and
correlation allows security and network events from multiple devices and
customers to be analyzed together, making relationships such as repeated source
addresses, coordinated scans or sequential authentication failures easier to
identify. Local console access is useful for troubleshooting but does not scale
for large-scale event correlation. Configuration comparison helps identify
changes but does not provide continuous event analysis, while basic interface
polling cannot capture the full context contained in security and system logs.
Managed-service environments therefore benefit substantially from centralized
monitoring and correlation.
19. An organization deploys IPv6 alongside
IPv4. A security engineer assumes that existing IPv4 firewall rules
automatically provide equivalent protection for IPv6 traffic. Why is this
assumption unsafe?
A. IPv6 does not support routing protocols B.
IPv6 traffic cannot be inspected by firewalls C. IPv6 uses only
broadcast-based communication D. IPv6 requires separate security policy
consideration and rule coverage
Answer: D
Rationale: IPv6 introduces addressing,
neighbor-discovery, extension-header and routing considerations that require
explicit security assessment and appropriate firewall policy. An organization
must verify that security controls actually inspect and enforce policy for IPv6
traffic rather than assuming IPv4 rules automatically provide equivalent
protection. IPv6 supports dynamic routing protocols and can be inspected by
modern security devices, while it does not use broadcast in the same manner as
IPv4. Consequently, dual-stack deployments must deliberately address security
for both protocol families.
20. A core router has two equal-cost paths to
the same destination. The organization wants to use both paths while
maintaining resilience if either path fails. Which feature most directly
supports this objective?
A. Equal-cost
multipath forwarding with dynamic convergence B. Route filtering that permits
only one next hop C. Static routing with a permanently preferred interface D.
Increasing the administrative distance of both paths
Answer: A
Rationale: Equal-Cost Multipath (ECMP) allows a
router to use multiple equal-cost paths simultaneously, improving utilization
and providing redundancy if one path becomes unavailable. Dynamic routing
protocols can recalculate the topology and remove failed paths as necessary.
Filtering the route down to one next hop defeats the purpose of multipath
forwarding, while a permanently preferred static route generally does not
provide equivalent dynamic load sharing. Increasing administrative distance
would affect route-source preference rather than enable equal-cost forwarding.
21. An ISP notices that a customer's MPLS VPN
route is being learned by the PE router but is not reachable from another
customer site connected to a different PE. The provider confirms that the
remote PE has a corresponding VPN route, but traffic is discarded inside the
provider network. Which area should be investigated most closely?
A. The customer's
DNS search domain B. The provider's MPLS label forwarding path C. The
customer's DHCP lease duration D. The application server's HTTP response
headers
Answer: B
Rationale: When the remote PE has the appropriate
VPN route but packets fail within the provider core, the investigation should
move toward the MPLS forwarding plane and label-switched path. The provider
must have the required label bindings and forwarding information to transport
traffic between the relevant PE routers and ultimately select the correct VPN
context at the destination PE. DNS, DHCP and HTTP behavior may affect
applications, but they do not explain packets being discarded within the MPLS
provider core after the VPN route has already been established.
22. A security team performs periodic
vulnerability testing against network devices. A critical vulnerability is
discovered on several routers, but immediate replacement is not possible. Which
response represents the strongest remediation approach?
A. Ignore the
finding until the next annual audit B. Publish the vulnerability without
applying any controls C. Assess exposure, apply compensating controls and
schedule remediation D. Disconnect every network device regardless of service
impact
Answer: C
Rationale: Effective vulnerability management
requires assessing the actual exposure and business risk, prioritizing the
finding, applying appropriate compensating controls where immediate patching or
replacement is not possible, and establishing a defined remediation plan.
Simply ignoring the vulnerability leaves the exposure unresolved, while
publishing the finding without protective action does not reduce risk.
Disconnecting every device may create unacceptable operational consequences and
is rarely a proportionate response. A risk-based remediation process balances
security requirements with service continuity.
23. An organization wants to ensure that
changes made to firewall configurations can later be traced to the person,
reason, approval and exact modification performed. Which control provides the
strongest support for this requirement?
A. Shared
administrator credentials with longer passwords B. Centralized change records
combined with individual administrative accounts C. Periodic deletion of old
firewall configuration files D. Allowing administrators to modify rules
without approval
Answer: B
Rationale: Individual administrative accounts
combined with formal change records provide accountability and traceability
because each modification can be associated with a specific person, approved
purpose, implementation time and documented outcome. Shared credentials weaken
attribution because multiple administrators can appear as the same account.
Deleting historical configurations removes valuable evidence, while allowing
unrestricted changes undermines both control and auditability. This approach is
particularly important for security devices supporting critical government
services.
24. A WAN link between two major sites has
sufficient average bandwidth, yet users report poor application performance
whenever large backup transfers occur. Packet captures show increasing queueing
delay but no significant physical errors. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Introduce QoS
classification and traffic shaping for competing traffic B. Disable routing
protocol authentication on the WAN routers C. Increase the BGP AS-path length
for internal application routes D. Replace IPv4 addressing with private IPv6
addressing immediately
Answer: A
Rationale: The symptoms indicate congestion caused
by competing traffic rather than a physical-layer failure. QoS classification
can identify critical application traffic, while shaping or appropriate queue
management can control bulk backup traffic so it does not consume excessive
bandwidth and create large queues. Disabling routing authentication does not
address congestion, BGP AS-path manipulation is irrelevant to traffic
scheduling on the WAN link, and changing the IP protocol would not solve a
queueing problem. Traffic engineering should therefore focus first on how
bandwidth is allocated among competing applications.
25. A network engineer is investigating an
intermittent outage affecting several services. Router interfaces remain up,
OSPF adjacencies repeatedly reset, and logs show that the resets occur around
the same time as bursts of interface errors. Which investigation provides the
strongest starting point?
A. Examine
application source-code dependencies before network evidence B. Change OSPF
timers immediately to prevent further resets C. Investigate the affected
interfaces for physical errors and link instability D. Increase BGP local
preference on all external routes
Answer: C
Rationale: Repeated OSPF adjacency resets occurring
together with bursts of interface errors strongly suggest an underlying link or
interface problem that is disrupting packet delivery and consequently causing
the routing adjacency to fail. The engineer should therefore first examine
interface counters, CRC errors, input/output errors, duplex or speed mismatches
where applicable, optics, cabling and related physical-layer indicators.
Increasing OSPF timers might mask symptoms without fixing the underlying fault,
application source code is not the strongest initial lead given the network
evidence, and BGP local preference is unrelated to an internal OSPF adjacency
repeatedly resetting. A good troubleshooting process starts with the strongest
evidence rather than changing protocol parameters prematurely.
26. An e-Government Authority router receives
several routes from an eBGP peer, but the routing team wants to prevent routes
containing private or unauthorized address space from entering the
organization's routing table. Which control is most appropriate?
A. Apply inbound
prefix filtering based on approved networks B. Increase the BGP keepalive
interval toward the provider C. Increase the OSPF cost on the provider-facing
interface D. Modify the router's TCP session timeout values
Answer: A
Rationale: Inbound BGP prefix filtering allows an
organization to define which prefixes it is willing to accept from a particular
external neighbor. This is an important routing-security control because it
limits unauthorized advertisements, accidental route leaks and unnecessary
routing-table growth. BGP keepalive settings affect session maintenance, OSPF
cost influences internal IGP path selection, and TCP timeout values do not
determine which BGP routes are accepted. The appropriate first control is
therefore an explicit inbound prefix policy.
27. A service-provider core carries thousands
of customer routes. Engineers want to reduce the number of individual prefixes
propagated through part of the provider's routing infrastructure while ensuring
that reachability to the summarized address space is maintained. Which
technique is most appropriate where the addressing plan permits it?
A. OSPF neighbor
prioritization B. BGP session authentication C. MPLS label swapping D. Route
summarization
Answer: D
Rationale: Route summarization combines multiple
contiguous or otherwise appropriately aggregatable prefixes into a larger
summary advertisement, reducing the number of individual routes that need to be
propagated and potentially reducing routing-table size and control-plane
processing. Authentication protects routing sessions but does not reduce route
quantity, MPLS label swapping concerns forwarding rather than route
aggregation, and neighbor prioritization does not summarize prefixes. Proper
summarization therefore provides the intended scalability benefit.
28. An OSPF router has formed an adjacency
with a neighboring router, but the expected network prefix is absent from the
routing table. The neighboring interface is operational and the adjacency is
fully established. Which investigation should be prioritized?
A. Verify that
the relevant network is actually being advertised into OSPF B. Increase the
BGP local preference for the missing network C. Change the Ethernet MAC
address of the neighboring router D. Increase the TCP receive window on the
affected application
Answer: A
Rationale: A fully established OSPF adjacency
confirms that the two routers are exchanging OSPF information, but it does not
guarantee that every connected or intended network is being advertised. The
engineer should therefore verify the relevant network statement, interface
participation, passive-interface settings and resulting LSAs in the OSPF
database. BGP local preference and TCP window size are unrelated to whether a
prefix is originated into OSPF, while changing a MAC address would not normally
correct an OSPF advertisement problem.
29. A provider wants to ensure that a
customer cannot advertise arbitrary Internet prefixes through its eBGP
connection. Which policy provides the most direct protection against such an
accidental or unauthorized advertisement?
A. Enable multicast forwarding on the customer
interface B. Increase the provider router's OSPF hello interval C. Apply an
outbound prefix-list permitting only the customer's assigned prefixes D.
Increase the MPLS label stack depth on the PE router
Answer: C
Rationale: An outbound prefix-list can explicitly
restrict the prefixes a customer is permitted to advertise to the provider.
This is a fundamental BGP routing-security measure because it helps prevent
route leaks and accidental announcements of unauthorized address space. OSPF
hello intervals, multicast forwarding and MPLS label-stack depth do not
determine which BGP prefixes a customer can advertise. Export filtering should
therefore be the primary control.
30. An organization uses BGP to receive
several routes from an upstream provider. The provider begins advertising a
large number of unexpected prefixes, increasing the organization's routing
table significantly. Which control is most appropriate to reduce the risk of
receiving unauthorized or excessive routes?
A. Increase the
BGP keepalive interval B. Apply an inbound prefix filter and appropriate
maximum-prefix protection C. Increase OSPF interface costs toward the provider D.
Disable BGP route advertisements during normal operation
Answer: B
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