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“200”, Aptitude Test Questions and Answers
for Legal Secretary – National Prosecution Services (N.P.S).
This document provides 200 multiple-choice
questions and answers for preparing candidates for the Legal Secretary (NPS) aptitude
test under the Public Service Recruitment Secretariat | PSRS, Tanzania. It
covers criminal procedure, evidence law, penal provisions, appeals, legal
drafting, ethics, and professional conduct. Each question includes four options
with the correct answer and a brief rationale, reflecting Tanzania laws and
international principles to ensure comprehensive and practical preparation.
Prepared
by:
State
Attorneys and Private legal Practitioners
Compiled
by Johnson Yesaya Mgelwa
A
lawyer based in Dar-es-salaam.
0628729934.
Date:
July 01, 2025
Dear
applicants,
This collection of questions and answers
has been carefully prepared to help all of you to understand the key areas
tested during the interview. The goal is to provide a useful, and practical
study guide so you can all perform confidently and fairly in the selection
process. I wish you the best of luck, and may this resource support you in
achieving success!
Warm
regards,
Johnson
Yesaya Mgelwa
For
Personal Use by Applicants Preparing for Legal Secretary – National Prosecution
Services (N.P.S), Interview.
Disclaimer:
These materials have been prepared independently to assist candidates preparing
for public service aptitude tests, particularly for legal positions such as Legal
Secretary, State Attorney, Tutorial Assistant (Law), and related posts. They
are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or officially connected to any government
body, including the National Prosecution Services or the Public Service
Recruitment Secretariat.
Copyright
Notice:
© 2025 Johnson Yesaya. All rights reserved.
No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or
transmitted in any form or by any means—electronic, mechanical, photocopying,
recording, or otherwise—without prior written permission from the author.
Purchasers are permitted to use this material for personal preparation only.
Redistribution, resale, or public sharing without authorization is prohibited.
ALL QUESTIONS COMPILED TOGETHER.
1. What is the correct legal term for a person accused of a criminal offence in court proceedings?
A. Petitioner B. Respondent C. Defendant D. Accused
Answer: D. Accused
Rationale: In criminal proceedings, the person against whom criminal
charges are brought is referred to as the accused under the Criminal
Procedure Act.
2. What is the primary legal document that initiates a criminal trial in court?
A. Petition B. Summons C. Charge Sheet D. Affidavit
Answer: C. Charge Sheet
Rationale: A criminal trial is initiated by filing a charge sheet or
information detailing the offence as per the CPA and Prosecutions Manual.
3. Which body is legally responsible for supervising and coordinating criminal investigations in Tanzania?
A. Police Force B. Judiciary C. Director of Public Prosecutions D. Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: C. Director of Public Prosecutions
Rationale: Section 9(1)(c) of the NPS Act gives the DPP powers over
coordination and supervision of criminal investigations.
4. Which of the following is NOT a lawful remedy for a defective charge?
A. Amendment of the charge B. Conviction without correction C. Withdrawal of charge D. Nolle prosequi
Answer: B. Conviction without correction
Rationale: A charge must be properly framed before conviction;
proceeding without addressing defects violates fair trial rights.
5. What does the principle of 'autrefois acquit' protect an accused from?
A. Double jeopardy B. Illegal detention C. Harsh punishment D. Delayed trial
Answer: A. Double jeopardy
Rationale: This plea protects a person from being tried again for the
same offence after a lawful acquittal (Section 280 CPA).
6. A charge containing more than one offence may be invalid due to:
A. Joinder of accused B. Duplicity C. Omission of particulars D. Wrong signature
Answer: B. Duplicity
Rationale: Duplicity arises when a single count includes more than one
offence, making the charge unclear.
7. What is the legal time frame within which a person arrested without a warrant must be brought before a court?
A. 48 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 36 hours
Answer: C. 24 hours
Rationale: Section 32 of the CPA requires suspects to be brought before
a court within 24 hours of arrest.
8. When may a Magistrate lawfully reject a criminal complaint?
A. If made in writing B. If made orally C. If vague or discloses no offence D. If the accused is unknown
Answer: C. If vague or discloses no offence
Rationale: A complaint must clearly state an offence to proceed;
vagueness or irrelevance is a ground for rejection.
9. Which of the following may lawfully cause or conduct an arrest without a warrant under the CPA?
A. Judge B. Police Officer C. Private Person (in limited cases) D. All of the
above
Answer: D. All of the above
Rationale:
Judges may order arrest in court, police may arrest under several CPA sections,
and private individuals may arrest in limited scenarios as provided under
Sections 15–16 of the CPA.
10. The doctrine of recent possession applies when the accused is found:
A. Near the crime scene B. In possession of stolen property soon after theft C. With forged documents D. Without alibi
Answer: B. In possession of stolen property soon after theft
Rationale: This doctrine infers guilt unless the accused offers a
reasonable explanation for possession.
11. A confession induced by threat or promise is considered:
A. Admissible B. Invalid C. Strong evidence D. Judicial confession
Answer: B. Invalid
Rationale: Section 27(3) of TEA renders confessions inadmissible if
obtained through inducement, threat or promise.
12. Under the CPA, who is responsible for recording a statement from an accused during interrogation?
A. Magistrate B. Private lawyer C. Police officer D. Court clerk
Answer: C. Police officer
Rationale: Sections 50–58 of the CPA provides that statements during
interrogation are recorded by the police.
13. The primary purpose of preliminary hearing is to:
A. Determine guilt B. Cross-examine witnesses C. Identify disputed facts D. Deliver judgment
Answer: C. Identify disputed facts
Rationale: Under Section 192 of the Criminal Procedure Act [Cap. 20
R.E. 2019], a preliminary hearing is conducted to clarify matters not in
dispute, record admissions, and identify the specific issues that remain
contested. This process helps streamline the main trial by reducing time
spent on uncontested matters and narrowing the focus to genuinely disputed
facts.
14. What must be proved by the prosecution before a confession is admitted as evidence?
A. The identity of the accused B. Voluntariness of the confession C. Credibility of witnesses D. Proper court jurisdiction
Answer: B. Voluntariness of the confession
Rationale: Prosecution bears the burden to prove that the confession was
made voluntarily (Section 27 TEA).
15. Which of the following is the first document filed to begin an appeal to the Court of Appeal?
A. Notice of Appeal B. Petition of Appeal C. Grounds of Appeal D. Reply to judgment
Answer: A. Notice of Appeal
Rationale: Under Rule 68(1) Tanzania Court of Appeal Rules, 2009, appeal
begins by lodging a notice of appeal at the High Court registry.
16. In criminal procedure, the act of calling a witness to court is done through:
A. Warrant B. Affidavit C. Summons D. Indictment
Answer: C. Summons
Rationale: Under Section 142 of the Criminal Procedure Act [Cap. 20
R.E. 2019], the court may issue a summons to compel the attendance
of a witness at a stated time and place. This is the primary legal instrument
for requiring witness attendance during criminal proceedings.
17. Which section of the CPA provides for the right to bail?
A. Section 31 B. Section 148 C. Section 49 D. Section 212
Answer: B. Section 148
Rationale: Section 148 CPA governs bail provisions, including
eligibility and conditions for release.
18. The prosecution may discontinue a criminal case before judgment through:
A. Withdrawal B. Dismissal C. Nolle prosequi D. Summary procedure
Answer: C. Nolle prosequi
Rationale: A nolle prosequi is a declaration by the DPP to stop
proceedings at any stage before judgment. (Section 91 CPA)
19. A legal secretary's role in opening new case files must be guided by:
A. Magistrate’s instructions B. Supervisor’s directions C. Court orders D. Prosecutor’s permission
Answer: B. Supervisor’s directions
Rationale: According to NPS job duties, case file management is
administrative and done under supervision.
20. Which of the following is NOT a stage in criminal trial procedure?
A. Plea taking B. Framing issues C. Prosecution evidence D. Judgment
Answer: B. Framing issues
Rationale: Framing of issues is a civil procedure concept and not part
of criminal trial stages.
21. A plea of guilty that contains doubt or unclear language is termed as:
A. Full plea B. False plea C. Equivocal plea D. Simple plea
Answer: C. Equivocal plea
Rationale: A plea is termed equivocal when it raises doubt or
ambiguity as to whether the accused fully understands or truly admits the
offence. According to case law (Laurent Mpinga v. Republic [1983] TLR 166),
such a plea must be clarified by the court before entering a conviction, to protect
the accused’s right to a fair trial.
22. What action should be taken when prosecution evidence is insufficient at close of its case?
A. Accused must defend B. Accused is sentenced C. Accused is discharged D. Preliminary hearing is resumed
Answer: C. Accused is discharged
Rationale: If a prima facie case is not established, the court must
discharge the accused per Section 230 CPA.
23. Within the National Prosecution Services (NPS), who is primarily responsible for submitting court documents and scheduling hearing dates?
A. Court Clerk B. Court Administrator C. Legal Secretary D. Prosecutor
Answer: C. Legal Secretary
Rationale: According to the official duties of a Legal Secretary at the National
Prosecution Services (NPS), they are tasked with submitting
court-related documents and recording case hearing dates in the case
diary. This distinguishes their role from a court clerk, who works on the
judiciary side.
24. What is the proper method for correcting a defective charge in court?
A. Deleting it from file B. Proceeding as is C. Amending the charge D. Ignoring the error
Answer: C. Amending the charge
Rationale: According to Section 234(1) of the Criminal Procedure Act
[Cap. 20 R.E. 2019], a court may amend or alter a charge at any stage
before the close of the prosecution’s case if it finds that the charge is
defective in substance or form. The amendment helps ensure fairness, clarity,
and compliance with criminal procedure.
25. When a person is arrested without a warrant for a bailable offence, the police may:
A. Detain indefinitely B. Take to prison C. Grant police bail D. Take to DPP
Answer: C. Grant police bail
Rationale: Under CPA Section 32(1), a police officer may release an
accused on bail if the offence is not serious.
26. Which of the following is NOT a duty of a legal secretary at the NPS?
A. Opening case files B. Preparing court judgments C. Submitting court documents D. Recording hearing dates
Answer: B. Preparing court judgments
Rationale: Legal secretaries assist with clerical and procedural tasks,
but drafting judgments is strictly the role of magistrates or judges.
27. The main objective of a criminal trial is to:
A. Blame someone B. Reward the prosecutor C. Determine guilt or innocence fairly D. Close files quickly
Answer: C. Determine guilt or innocence fairly
Rationale: A trial ensures justice is served through fair, impartial
evaluation of evidence and proper legal procedure.
28. Which file contains documents such as the charge sheet, witness statements, and exhibits?
A. Bail file B. Registry file C. Case file D. Hearing diary
Answer: C. Case file
Rationale: A case file contains all official documents related to a
specific case and is opened and managed by legal support staff.
29. If a person is dissatisfied with a decision of a subordinate court, they may seek:
A. Withdrawal of case B. Review by same court C. Appeal to higher court D. Dismissal of the judge
Answer: C. Appeal to higher court
Rationale: Under Section 359 of the Criminal Procedure Act [Cap. 20
R.E. 2019], any person convicted by a subordinate court has the right to
appeal to the High Court. This right to appeal ensures that errors in law or
fact can be reviewed and corrected by a higher judicial authority, promoting
justice and fairness.
30. If the accused person refuses to plead, what does the court do?
A. Acquit the accused B. Order imprisonment C. Enter plea of not guilty D. Remove the charge
Answer: C. Enter plea of not guilty
Rationale: Section 228(4) of the CPA provides that when an accused refuses to plead, the court shall enter a plea of not guilty on their behalf and proceed to hear the case
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