“150”, Aptitude Test Questions and Answers
for Nursing Officer II – MDA & LGA.
ABSTRACT
This book contains 150 multiple-choice
questions and answers designed to help candidates preparing for the Afisa
Muuguzi Daraja la II (Nursing Officer II) – MDA & LGA Public Service
online aptitude test in Tanzania. The questions are scenario-based and reflect
the level of knowledge, critical thinking, clinical judgment, and
decision-making expected of a registered Nursing Officer. They cover a wide
range of nursing competencies, including medical-surgical nursing, emergency
and critical care, maternal and neonatal health, pediatric nursing, community
health, infection prevention and control, medication safety, ethics,
leadership, patient safety, and professional practice. Each question is
accompanied by the correct answer and a detailed rationale to strengthen
understanding, reinforce evidence-based nursing practice, and improve
candidates' confidence and readiness for the recruitment examination.
Prepared by: Nursing
Officer II
Based in Dar-es-salaam.
0628729934.
Date: August 01, 2026
Dear applicants,
This collection of questions and answers
has been carefully prepared to help all of you to understand the key areas
tested during the interview. The goal is to provide a useful, and practical
study guide so you can all perform confidently and fairly in the selection
process. I wish you the best of luck, and may this resource support you in
achieving success!
Warm regards,
Nursing Officer II
For Personal Use by Applicants Preparing
for MDA and LGA Nursing Officer II interview at Public Service Recruitment Service.
ALL
QUESTIONS ARE COMPILED TOGETHER.
1. A nurse is caring for four patients
during a busy morning shift. Which patient should the nurse assess FIRST?
A. A postoperative patient reporting pain
rated 8/10 after receiving analgesics two hours earlier.
B. A patient with pneumonia whose oxygen saturation
has fallen from 96% to 88% on room air. C. A diabetic
patient whose pre-lunch blood glucose is 14.5 mmol/L without symptoms.
D. A hypertensive patient whose blood pressure is
168/98 mmHg with no complaints.
Answer: B
Rationale: Nursing priority is guided by the ABC
(Airway, Breathing, Circulation) principle. A sudden fall in oxygen saturation
to 88% indicates impaired oxygenation and places the patient at immediate risk
of respiratory failure if not assessed and managed promptly. Although severe
pain, hyperglycaemia, and elevated blood pressure require nursing attention,
they are generally less immediately life-threatening than acute hypoxaemia.
Therefore, the nurse should first assess the patient with worsening respiratory
status before attending to the others.
2. A woman who delivered a healthy baby
20 minutes ago suddenly develops heavy vaginal bleeding with a soft, enlarged
uterus on palpation. What should the nurse do FIRST?
A. Prepare the mother for emergency
surgery while monitoring vital signs. B. Encourage the
mother to breastfeed immediately before further assessment.
C. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics to prevent postpartum infection.
D. Begin vigorous uterine massage while calling for
additional assistance.
Answer: D
Rationale: A soft, enlarged uterus accompanied by
heavy postpartum bleeding strongly suggests uterine atony, the leading cause of
postpartum haemorrhage. The immediate nursing intervention is firm uterine
massage to stimulate uterine contraction while simultaneously calling for help
and preparing for additional management such as uterotonic medications.
Delaying massage to arrange surgery or administer antibiotics would increase
blood loss, and although breastfeeding promotes oxytocin release, it is not the
first emergency intervention in active postpartum haemorrhage.
3. A nurse is preparing intravenous
medication for a patient when another nurse asks for assistance with a
different patient. What is the MOST appropriate action?
A. Leave the medication unattended
briefly and assist immediately. B. Ask a nearby
visitor to watch the medication until returning. C.
Complete medication preparation safely before responding if the situation is
not urgent. D. Discard the prepared medication without
informing the requesting nurse.
Answer: C
Rationale: Medication safety requires minimizing
interruptions because distractions increase the risk of medication errors. If
the other patient's situation is not an emergency, the nurse should safely
complete medication preparation before assisting. If the situation is an
emergency, the nurse should secure the medication appropriately before
responding rather than leaving it unattended or asking an unauthorized person
to supervise it. Therefore, completing medication preparation safely before
responding to a non-urgent request represents the most appropriate professional
practice.
4. During a home visit, a nurse finds
that a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis has stopped taking medication
because symptoms have improved. What is the nurse's BEST response?
A. Advise the patient to restart
treatment only if symptoms return. B. Explain the
importance of completing treatment and assess barriers to adherence.
C. Report the patient immediately without providing any
health education. D. Recommend reducing the medication
dose until the patient feels stronger.
Answer: B
Rationale: Tuberculosis treatment must be completed
even after symptoms improve to achieve cure, prevent relapse, and reduce the
development of drug-resistant tuberculosis. The nurse's responsibility includes
providing health education, assessing reasons for non-adherence, addressing
barriers such as side effects or access problems, and encouraging treatment
completion. Simply waiting for symptoms to recur, reducing the dose, or
reporting the patient without first attempting education and support does not
reflect patient-centred nursing practice.
5. A nurse delegates the task of
obtaining routine vital signs for stable adult patients to an enrolled nurse.
Which responsibility MUST remain with the registered Nursing Officer?
A. Measuring body temperature using a
digital thermometer. B. Recording pulse, respiration
and blood pressure findings. C. Interpreting abnormal
assessment findings and planning nursing care. D.
Reporting completed observations at the end of the nursing shift.
Answer: C
Rationale: Delegation allows appropriate nursing
tasks to be assigned to competent personnel, but professional accountability
for patient assessment, clinical judgment, care planning, and evaluation
remains with the registered Nursing Officer. While routine measurements such as
temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure may be delegated according
to institutional policy, interpreting abnormal findings and determining
appropriate nursing interventions require the knowledge, critical thinking, and
legal responsibility of the registered nurse. Therefore, clinical
interpretation and care planning cannot be delegated.
6. A 62-year-old patient suddenly
develops slurred speech, right-sided weakness, and facial drooping while
admitted to the medical ward. What is the nurse's PRIORITY action?
A. Immediately activate the stroke
response system and record the time symptoms began. B.
Give the patient oral aspirin before notifying the clinician.
C. Raise the head of the bed and observe for one hour
before reporting. D. Begin passive range-of-motion
exercises to the affected limbs.
Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms strongly suggest
an acute stroke, a medical emergency in which time is critical. The nurse
should immediately activate the appropriate emergency response, document the
exact time the symptoms started or were first noticed, and facilitate rapid
assessment because treatments such as thrombolytic therapy are time-dependent.
Aspirin should not be given until the type of stroke is confirmed, observation
alone delays lifesaving treatment, and rehabilitation measures are not
priorities during the acute phase.
7. A nurse is reviewing a physician's
medication order and notices that the prescribed dose is significantly higher
than the recommended therapeutic range. What is the MOST appropriate nursing
action?
A. Administer half the prescribed dose
based on clinical judgment. B. Clarify the
prescription with the prescriber before administering the medication.
C. Ask another nurse to administer the medication instead.
D. Delay the medication until the next scheduled
administration time.
Answer: B
Rationale: Nurses are professionally and legally
responsible for ensuring that medication orders are safe before administration.
When a prescribed dose appears unsafe or inconsistent with accepted therapeutic
standards, the nurse should withhold administration temporarily and immediately
seek clarification from the prescriber. Altering the dose independently, asking
another nurse to administer it, or delaying treatment without communication
fails to meet professional standards and may expose the patient to preventable
harm.
8. A nurse is caring for a patient with
suspected bacterial meningitis. Which nursing intervention is MOST appropriate
to reduce the risk of disease transmission within the hospital?
A. Require the patient to wear gloves
continuously while in the ward. B. Use airborne
precautions until all cultures become negative. C.
Implement droplet precautions promptly in addition to standard precautions.
D. Restrict all visitors until the patient is
discharged from hospital.
Answer: C
Rationale: Suspected bacterial meningitis,
particularly meningococcal disease, requires prompt implementation of droplet
precautions together with standard precautions to reduce transmission through
respiratory droplets. Appropriate use of surgical masks, patient isolation
where indicated, and hand hygiene are essential nursing responsibilities.
Airborne precautions are generally unnecessary for routine bacterial
meningitis, continuous glove use by the patient offers little protection, and
complete visitor restriction is not routinely required when proper precautions
are followed.
9. During a community outreach programme,
a nurse identifies a child with severe acute malnutrition who is lethargic and
unable to drink. What should the nurse do FIRST?
A. Teach the caregiver about balanced
nutrition before referral. B. Schedule the child for
routine follow-up after one week. C. Provide
multivitamins and discharge the child home. D. Arrange
urgent referral for emergency assessment and stabilization.
Answer: D
Rationale: A child with severe acute malnutrition
who is lethargic and unable to drink has danger signs indicating a
life-threatening condition requiring urgent medical assessment and
stabilization. Immediate referral is the priority because delaying treatment
increases the risk of shock, hypoglycaemia, infection, and death. Nutrition
counselling and vitamin supplementation are important components of care but
should follow emergency stabilization rather than replace it.
10. A registered nurse is supervising
several junior nurses. Which action BEST demonstrates effective clinical
leadership in maintaining quality patient care?
A. Completing all complex procedures
personally to avoid mistakes. B. Delegating every task
equally regardless of staff competence. C. Providing
guidance, monitoring performance, and giving constructive feedback.
D. Allowing staff to make independent clinical
decisions without supervision.
Answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing leadership involves
ensuring safe, high-quality patient care through appropriate supervision,
coaching, performance monitoring, and timely feedback. A Nursing Officer should
delegate according to each staff member's competence while remaining
accountable for patient outcomes. Performing all procedures personally reduces
team efficiency, assigning tasks without considering competence jeopardizes
patient safety, and allowing unsupervised independent decisions by junior staff
may result in preventable clinical errors.
11. A patient who received one unit of
compatible blood develops chills, fever, dyspnoea, and chest tightness 15
minutes after the transfusion begins. What should the nurse do FIRST?
A. Slow the transfusion rate and continue
close observation. B. Stop the transfusion immediately
while maintaining intravenous access with normal saline.
C. Administer a prescribed antipyretic before reassessing
the patient. D. Complete the transfusion quickly to
avoid wasting the blood product.
Answer: B
Rationale: The patient is showing signs suggestive
of an acute transfusion reaction, which may rapidly become life-threatening.
The nurse's immediate priority is to stop the transfusion, maintain intravenous
access with normal saline using new tubing if required by institutional policy,
assess the patient, notify the clinician and blood bank, and follow the
facility's transfusion reaction protocol. Slowing or completing the transfusion
may worsen the reaction, while administering medication before stopping the transfusion
delays the most critical intervention.
12. A nurse is assessing a patient with
suspected septic shock. Which finding should alert the nurse that tissue
perfusion is becoming critically compromised?
A. Warm skin with a capillary refill time
of two seconds. B. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
with stable blood pressure. C. Urine output of 15 mL
over the past hour despite adequate fluid therapy. D.
Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute with normal oxygen saturation.
Answer: C
Rationale: Oliguria despite adequate fluid
resuscitation is a significant indicator of poor renal perfusion and worsening
organ dysfunction in septic shock. Urine output below approximately 0.5
mL/kg/hour suggests inadequate tissue perfusion and requires urgent reassessment
and escalation of care. The remaining findings are comparatively reassuring and
do not independently indicate critical deterioration. Monitoring urine output
is therefore one of the most important nursing responsibilities in patients
with suspected shock.
13. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis
is receiving treatment in the emergency unit. Which assessment finding BEST
indicates that the patient is responding to therapy?
A. Progressive decline in blood glucose
accompanied by improving level of consciousness. B.
Persistent deep rapid breathing despite stable laboratory findings.
C. Increasing urine ketones while the patient remains
dehydrated. D. Rising serum potassium with worsening
cardiac rhythm abnormalities.
Answer: A
Rationale: Effective management of diabetic
ketoacidosis is reflected by gradual normalization of blood glucose, correction
of dehydration and metabolic acidosis, and improvement in the patient's
neurological status. Improving consciousness is an important clinical indicator
that tissue perfusion and metabolic balance are recovering. Persistent Kussmaul
respirations, increasing ketone production, or worsening hyperkalaemia suggest
ongoing metabolic derangement rather than successful treatment.
14. During an antenatal clinic visit, a
pregnant woman at 35 weeks' gestation reports severe headache, blurred vision,
and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg. What is the nurse's
PRIORITY action?
A. Reassure the woman that these symptoms
commonly occur during late pregnancy. B. Encourage
oral fluids and advise her to rest at home for 24 hours.
C. Arrange immediate emergency assessment for severe pre-eclampsia
and possible complications. D. Schedule a follow-up
antenatal visit after one week to reassess blood pressure.
Answer: C
Rationale: Severe hypertension accompanied by
headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain strongly suggests severe
pre-eclampsia, a life-threatening obstetric emergency that may rapidly progress
to eclampsia, stroke, placental abruption, or maternal and fetal death.
Immediate referral for emergency assessment and definitive management is
essential. Reassurance, home observation, or delaying reassessment would expose
both mother and fetus to significant risk.
15. While documenting patient care, a
nurse realizes that an incorrect medication was recorded in the patient's
nursing notes. Which action reflects BEST professional documentation practice?
A. Erase the incorrect entry completely
before writing the correct information. B. Draw a
single line through the error, record the correct information, and authenticate
the correction. C. Leave the incorrect documentation
unchanged to preserve the original record. D. Remove
the affected page from the patient's record and prepare a replacement copy.
Answer: B
Rationale: Nursing documentation is a legal record
and must remain accurate, transparent, and traceable. When an error occurs in a
handwritten record, the accepted practice is to draw a single line through the
incorrect entry so that it remains legible, document the correct information,
and sign or initial the correction according to institutional policy. Erasing
entries, removing pages, or leaving inaccurate information uncorrected
compromises the integrity of the medical record and may have serious legal and
patient safety consequences.
16. A 70-year-old patient suddenly loses
consciousness while attached to a cardiac monitor. The monitor shows
ventricular fibrillation, and the patient has no palpable pulse. What should
the nurse do FIRST?
A. Administer intravenous amiodarone
before any other intervention. B. Insert an
oropharyngeal airway before initiating resuscitation. C. Check the
patient's blood pressure to confirm cardiac arrest. D.
Begin high-quality chest compressions while preparing for immediate
defibrillation.
Answer: D
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a shockable
cardiac arrest rhythm requiring immediate high-quality cardiopulmonary
resuscitation (CPR) and rapid defibrillation. The nurse should activate the
resuscitation team, begin effective chest compressions, and ensure the
defibrillator is used as soon as possible. Drug therapy such as amiodarone is
considered only after initial defibrillation attempts. Checking blood pressure
or delaying CPR to insert an airway unnecessarily postpones lifesaving
treatment.
17. A nurse is caring for an immobile
patient who has been confined to bed for several days. Which nursing
intervention is MOST effective in preventing pressure injuries?
A. Massage reddened bony prominences
during every shift. B. Reposition the patient
regularly while assessing skin integrity. C. Restrict
oral fluids to minimize skin moisture and sweating. D.
Elevate the head of the bed above 60 degrees continuously.
Answer: B
Rationale: The cornerstone of pressure injury
prevention is regular repositioning combined with systematic skin assessment,
pressure redistribution, nutritional support, and moisture management.
Massaging reddened skin may further damage already compromised tissue,
restricting fluids increases the risk of dehydration and poor tissue perfusion,
and prolonged elevation of the head of the bed above 30–45 degrees increases
shear forces, particularly over the sacrum. Frequent repositioning remains the
most effective nursing intervention.
18. A two-year-old child arrives at the
emergency department with severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, and
reduced responsiveness. Which nursing action has the HIGHEST priority?
A. Obtain a detailed immunization history
from the caregiver. B. Measure the child's weight
before initiating treatment. C. Establish and maintain
a patent airway while providing oxygen therapy. D.
Collect blood specimens for routine laboratory investigations.
Answer: C
Rationale: The child demonstrates signs of
life-threatening respiratory compromise. According to the ABC approach,
maintaining a patent airway and ensuring adequate oxygenation are the immediate
priorities to prevent respiratory arrest and irreversible organ damage. History
taking, weighing the child, and laboratory investigations are important but
should only occur after the airway has been secured and the child's breathing
stabilized.
19. A terminally ill patient with
advanced cancer tells the nurse, "I am afraid that my pain will never be
controlled." What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing response?
A. "You should avoid thinking about
your illness because it increases stress." B.
"Most patients eventually become accustomed to severe pain."
C. "Let us discuss your concerns so we can
improve your comfort and pain management." D.
"The doctor will decide whether additional pain treatment is
necessary."
Answer: C
Rationale: Therapeutic communication is essential
in palliative nursing. The nurse should acknowledge the patient's concerns,
encourage expression of fears, perform a comprehensive pain assessment, and
collaborate with the multidisciplinary team to optimize symptom control.
Dismissing concerns, minimizing pain, or transferring responsibility entirely
to the physician fails to provide patient-centred care and may undermine trust.
Effective pain management begins with careful assessment and empathetic
communication.
20. A nurse is preparing to administer
intravenous potassium chloride to a patient with hypokalaemia. Which action is
MOST important to ensure patient safety?
A. Administer the potassium chloride by
rapid intravenous push to correct the deficiency quickly.
B. Dilute the potassium appropriately and administer
it using the recommended controlled infusion rate. C.
Mix the potassium with any available intravenous medication to reduce the
number of infusions. D. Delay potassium replacement
until the patient reports muscle weakness has worsened.
Answer: B
Rationale: Potassium chloride is a high-alert
medication that must never be administered by rapid intravenous push because it
can precipitate fatal cardiac arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Safe nursing
practice requires appropriate dilution, administration using a controlled
infusion device according to institutional guidelines, continuous patient
assessment, and monitoring for cardiac and electrolyte changes where indicated.
Mixing potassium indiscriminately with other medications or delaying treatment
unnecessarily places the patient at significant risk.
21. A patient with chronic kidney disease
has not passed urine for the past 12 hours despite adequate hydration. The
patient is becoming increasingly restless, and the ECG monitor shows tall,
peaked T waves. What is the nurse's PRIORITY action?
A. Encourage the patient to drink more
oral fluids and continue observation. B. Administer a
prescribed loop diuretic without further assessment.
C. Notify the clinician immediately and prepare for urgent management of
suspected hyperkalaemia. D. Reassure the patient that
these findings are expected in chronic kidney disease.
Answer: C
Rationale: Oliguria together with tall, peaked T
waves on ECG strongly suggests hyperkalaemia, a life-threatening electrolyte
disturbance that can rapidly progress to fatal cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse
must immediately notify the clinician, continue close cardiac monitoring, and
prepare for emergency interventions such as calcium administration, insulin
with glucose, or dialysis as prescribed. Simply encouraging fluids, giving a
diuretic without assessment, or reassuring the patient would dangerously delay
appropriate treatment.
22. While inserting a urinary catheter
using sterile technique, the nurse accidentally touches the sterile catheter
with an ungloved hand. What is the MOST appropriate action?
A. Continue the procedure because only a
small portion of the catheter was touched. B. Clean
the contaminated area with antiseptic solution and proceed.
C. Ask another nurse to complete the procedure using
the same catheter. D. Discard the contaminated
catheter and restart the procedure with new sterile equipment.
Answer: D
Rationale: Once sterile equipment is contaminated,
sterility has been lost and cannot be restored by wiping or disinfecting the
item. To reduce the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infection, the
nurse should discard the contaminated catheter, prepare a new sterile
catheterization set, and restart the procedure using correct aseptic technique.
Patient safety requires strict adherence to sterile principles even when
contamination appears minor.
23. During labour, the fetal heart rate
suddenly falls to 90 beats per minute and remains low for more than three
minutes despite maternal repositioning. What is the nurse's NEXT priority
action?
A. Continue observing because transient
fetal heart rate changes are common during labour. B.
Notify the obstetric team immediately while preparing for possible emergency
intervention. C. Encourage the mother to begin pushing
harder with each contraction. D. Delay further action
until another fetal heart rate assessment is completed after 30 minutes.
Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent fetal bradycardia is an
obstetric emergency because it may indicate significant fetal hypoxia. After
immediate corrective measures such as maternal repositioning have failed, the
nurse should urgently notify the obstetric team and prepare for possible
emergency delivery or other interventions. Delaying action or encouraging
active pushing may worsen fetal compromise and increase the risk of adverse
neonatal outcomes.
24. A district experiences a sudden
increase in patients presenting with acute watery diarrhoea from the same
village over two days. What is the nurse's MOST appropriate public health
action?
A. Begin immediate reporting through the
surveillance system while supporting outbreak investigation and community
control measures. B. Wait until laboratory
confirmation is received for every patient before reporting the cases.
C. Advise community members to remain at home without notifying health
authorities. D. Focus only on treating hospitalized
patients because public health activities are the responsibility of another
department.
Answer: A
Rationale: Nurses play an essential role in disease
surveillance and outbreak response. A cluster of acute watery diarrhoea cases
should be reported promptly according to national surveillance procedures while
public health authorities initiate investigation and control measures. Early
reporting allows rapid implementation of interventions such as case finding,
health education, safe water promotion, and infection control. Waiting for
complete laboratory confirmation or failing to notify authorities may delay outbreak
containment.
25. At the end of a shift, a nurse
realizes that a prescribed antibiotic due two hours earlier was unintentionally
omitted. The patient is clinically stable and unaware of the omission. What
should the nurse do FIRST?
A. Administer the missed dose without
informing anyone to avoid disciplinary action. B.
Record the medication as administered because the omission was unintentional.
C. Wait until the next shift so the incoming nurse can
decide what to do. D. Assess the patient, report the
omission promptly, document the event accurately, and follow further clinical
instructions.
Answer: D
Rationale: Professional accountability requires
nurses to respond honestly and promptly to medication errors or omissions. The
nurse should immediately assess the patient, notify the appropriate clinician
or supervisor, accurately document the omission according to institutional
policy, and complete any required incident reporting while implementing further
instructions. Concealing the error, falsifying documentation, or delaying
communication compromises patient safety, violates professional ethics, and may
have serious legal consequences.
26. A patient with bacterial meningitis
is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Two hours later, the nurse notes a
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score decreasing from 15 to 12. What is the nurse's
PRIORITY action?
A. Continue routine neurological
observations as scheduled. B. Administer the next dose
of antibiotics before reassessment. C. Immediately
notify the clinician and prepare for urgent neurological evaluation.
D. Encourage the patient to sleep because rest
promotes recovery.
Answer: C
Rationale: A decline in the Glasgow Coma Scale is a
significant indicator of neurological deterioration and may suggest increasing
intracranial pressure, cerebral edema, or worsening infection. Early
recognition and prompt escalation of care are essential to prevent irreversible
brain injury. Waiting for routine observations or assuming the patient simply
needs rest could delay lifesaving intervention. Although antibiotics remain
important, neurological deterioration requires immediate reassessment before
routine treatment continues.
27. A nurse is preparing a patient for
surgery. The patient quietly states, "I signed the consent form because my
relatives insisted, but I do not want the operation." What should the
nurse do FIRST?
A. Inform the surgeon immediately and
withhold further preparation until the patient's wishes are clarified.
B. Advise the patient that the signed consent cannot
be withdrawn once submitted. C. Continue preparing the
patient because relatives already approved the procedure.
D. Ask the relatives to convince the patient before
surgery begins.
Answer: A
Rationale: Valid informed consent requires that the
patient voluntarily agrees to the procedure without coercion and retains the
right to withdraw consent at any time before the intervention. The nurse has an
ethical and legal duty to advocate for the patient's autonomy by immediately
informing the surgical team and pausing further preparation until the matter is
resolved. Proceeding despite the patient's objection would violate ethical
principles and professional standards.
28. A patient admitted with severe
dehydration secondary to acute gastroenteritis suddenly becomes confused,
develops weak peripheral pulses, and has a blood pressure of 82/50 mmHg. Which
nursing action is MOST appropriate?
A. Encourage oral rehydration solution
every 30 minutes until the patient improves. B.
Position the patient comfortably and reassess after one hour.
C. Document the findings before informing the
clinician. D. Initiate emergency management for
hypovolaemic shock and urgently notify the clinician.
Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's hypotension, confusion,
and weak pulses indicate hypovolaemic shock resulting from severe fluid loss.
Immediate nursing priorities include activating emergency management,
maintaining airway and circulation, preparing rapid intravenous fluid
resuscitation as prescribed, and urgently notifying the clinician. Delaying
intervention for documentation, observation, or oral fluids alone may result in
irreversible organ failure and death.
29. A nurse is assessing a newborn one
minute after birth. The infant has a heart rate of 90 beats per minute,
irregular breathing, weak muscle tone, grimaces to stimulation, and has blue
hands and feet with a pink trunk. What is the MOST appropriate interpretation?
A. The newborn requires immediate chest
compressions before further assessment. B. The newborn has an Apgar score of
5 and requires initial resuscitative support. C. The newborn is completely
stable and should be transferred directly to routine postnatal care. D. The
newborn has an Apgar score of 10 and needs no further observation.
Answer: B
Rationale: The Apgar score is calculated using five
components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability,
and colour. This newborn scores 5 (heart rate = 1, respiration = 1,
muscle tone = 1, reflex irritability = 1, colour = 1 due to acrocyanosis). An
Apgar score of 5 indicates moderate depression requiring prompt supportive
resuscitative measures and close reassessment. Chest compressions are not
indicated unless the heart rate remains below 60 beats per minute after
effective ventilation.
30. A nurse is reviewing the handover
report before assuming responsibility for the ward. Which information requires
FOLLOW-UP FIRST?
A. A postoperative patient who has not
passed urine for eight hours after surgery despite adequate intravenous fluids.
B. A patient requesting discharge counselling before
leaving the hospital tomorrow. C. A stable patient
requesting assistance with personal hygiene after breakfast.
D. A patient awaiting routine fasting blood glucose
measurement before lunch.
Answer: A
Rationale: Failure to pass urine for eight hours
following surgery despite adequate fluid replacement may indicate acute urinary
retention, renal impairment, hypovolaemia, or postoperative complications
requiring urgent assessment. The nurse should prioritize evaluating this
patient to determine the cause and initiate timely intervention. While
discharge counselling, hygiene assistance, and routine blood glucose monitoring
are important aspects of nursing care, they do not present the same level of
immediate clinical concern.
📘 Get the Full Aptitude Test Questions PDF through your Gmail (Questions 1–150)
You’ve just accessed the first 30 questions. The full set of 150 expertly prepared aptitude test questions for Nursing Officer II – MDA & LGA., Is available, pay, and get access.
To get access to the full PDF, please make a payment of Tsh 10,000 to the LIPA numbers below:
After payment, please send a text message to notify us of your payment:
⚠️ Important Notice
- The PDF will be watermarked with your name and phone number and protected for personal use only.
- Redistribution, sharing, screenshotting, or copying the contents is strictly prohibited. When you share unlawfully, your name and phone number are visible and easy to trace as you leaked a document to other third parties.
- Legal action may be taken against the misuse of this material.
Thank you for supporting quality content. Best of luck in your interview preparation!
0 Comments
PLACE YOUR COMMENT HERE
WARNING: DO NOT USE ABUSIVE LANGUAGE BECAUSE IT IS AGAINST THE LAW.
THE COMMENTS OF OUR READERS IS NOT OUR RESPONSIBILITY.