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“200”, Aptitude Test Questions and Answers for Research Officer II – The Office of Treasury Registrar (OTR).

 


“200”, Aptitude Test Questions and Answers for Research Officer II – The Office of Treasury Registrar (OTR).

 

 

 

ABSTRACT

This set of 200 multiple-choice questions with answers prepares candidates for the Research Officer II aptitude test at the Office of the Treasury Registrar (OTR), Tanzania. It covers research methods, economics, statistics, finance, investment, public administration, and project management. The questions reflect the test style, enhance analytical skills, and provide clear rationales to strengthen understanding and exam readiness.

 

Prepared by:

Research Officer

Compiled by Johnson Yesaya Mgelwa.

A lawyer stationed in Dar-es-salaam.

0628729934.

Date: September 1, 2025

 

Dear applicants,

This collection of questions and answers has been prepared to help all of you to understand the key areas tested during the aptitude test. The goal is to provide a useful, and practical study guide so you can all perform confidently and fairly in the selection process. I wish you the best of luck, and may this resource support you in achieving success!

 

Warm regards,

Johnson Yesaya Mgelwa

 

For Personal Use by Applicants Preparing for Research Officer II – The Office of Treasury Registrar interview.

ALL QUESTIONS TOGETHER.

1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of research in public institutions such as the Office of the Treasury Registrar?

A. To collect opinions for policy debates B. To create knowledge that informs decision-making C. To ensure compliance with financial regulations D. To reduce the workload of management

Answer: B

Rationale: Research in public institutions is primarily conducted to create and generate knowledge that can inform evidence-based decision-making, improve efficiency, and provide guidance for policies and programs. While compliance and workload reduction are important, they are outcomes of informed decisions, not the direct purpose.


2. When developing a research program, the first essential step is to:

A. Write the final report B. Define research objectives C. Collect secondary data D. Conduct data analysis

Answer: B

Rationale: Defining research objectives is the first step in research program development because it gives direction, scope, and purpose to the study. Without clear objectives, subsequent steps such as data collection or analysis lack focus and may not achieve meaningful results.


3. Which research design is most appropriate when assessing the relationship between government investments and economic growth over ten years?

A. Experimental B. Cross-sectional C. Longitudinal D. Case study

Answer: C

Rationale: Longitudinal research is best suited for examining changes and relationships over an extended period, such as ten years. Cross-sectional studies provide a snapshot at one point in time, while experimental and case studies cannot adequately capture trends across long durations.


4. The main role of documentation in research is to:

A. Store unused materials B. Demonstrate transparency and reproducibility C. Replace statistical analysis D. Simplify research questions

Answer: B

Rationale: Documentation ensures transparency, accuracy, and reproducibility of research. It allows other researchers or institutions to understand the process followed, validate results, and build upon the findings. It is a critical part of professional research standards.


5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good research?

A. Systematic process B. Based on logical reasoning C. Free from bias D. Conducted only when results are favorable

Answer: D

Rationale: Good research must be systematic, logical, and objective, with results reported regardless of whether they are favorable or unfavorable. Suppressing results undermines credibility, validity, and the integrity of the research process.


6. In statistical research, the measure of how closely data points cluster around the mean is called:

A. Variance B. Correlation C. Skewness D. Regression

Answer: A

Rationale: Variance measures the degree of spread of data points around the mean. Correlation shows the strength of a relationship, skewness shows asymmetry in distribution, and regression models relationships. Variance directly reflects dispersion.


7. Which of the following best explains the role of international research collaboration for the OTR?

A. To compete with foreign institutions B. To share knowledge and strengthen capacity C. To eliminate domestic research needs D. To replace local expertise

Answer: B

Rationale: International collaboration provides knowledge exchange, technical expertise, and access to broader resources. It does not replace local research but strengthens capacity and global relevance. Competition and elimination of local expertise are not objectives.


8. Which of the following is considered a primary source of data in research?

A. Journal articles B. Government statistical reports C. Data collected through surveys D. Research reviews

Answer: C

Rationale: Primary sources of data are those collected firsthand by the researcher through methods such as surveys, interviews, or experiments. Journals and government reports are secondary sources that interpret or compile existing data.


9. The process of ensuring that research results can be generalized to a larger population is called:

A. Validity B. Reliability C. Generalizability D. Standardization

Answer: C

Rationale: Generalizability refers to the extent research findings can apply to a wider population beyond the sample studied. Validity and reliability are essential for accuracy and consistency, but generalizability focuses on broader application.


10. In economics, “opportunity cost” refers to:

A. The cost of resources used in research B. The benefit of the chosen alternative C. The value of the next best alternative forgone D. The monetary expense incurred in investment

Answer: C

Rationale: Opportunity cost is the value of the next best alternative that must be forgone when a choice is made. It reflects trade-offs, which are crucial in economic decision-making, planning, and resource allocation.


11. Which statistical test is most appropriate for comparing the mean incomes of two independent groups?

A. Chi-square test B. Independent samples t-test C. ANOVA D. Correlation

Answer: B

Rationale: An independent samples t-test is used to compare the means of two independent groups. Chi-square is for categorical variables, ANOVA compares more than two groups, and correlation measures relationships, not differences in means.


12. In policy research, a consultative forum is MOST useful for:

A. Finalizing financial reports B. Sharing knowledge and gaining stakeholder input C. Avoiding research expenses D. Documenting individual preferences

Answer: B

Rationale: Consultative forums create a platform for stakeholders to share knowledge, exchange perspectives, and provide feedback on policies or proposals. This enhances inclusiveness and legitimacy in decision-making.


13. Which of the following best measures inflation trends in an economy?

A. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) B. Consumer Price Index (CPI) C. Employment Rate D. Balance of Payments

Answer: B

Rationale: CPI measures the average change in prices of consumer goods and services, making it a key indicator of inflation. GDP measures output, employment rates reflect labor markets, and balance of payments deals with international trade.


14. Which of the following is a limitation of cross-sectional research design?

A. It requires too much time B. It is always expensive C. It uses multiple samples D. It cannot establish causality

Answer: D

Rationale: Cross-sectional designs provide a snapshot at one point in time and cannot establish causal relationships. They are generally quicker and less costly than longitudinal studies but limited in explaining cause-effect dynamics.


15. Which principle is central to ethical research involving human participants?

A. Maximizing data collection B. Prioritizing publication speed C. Obtaining informed consent D. Reducing costs

Answer: C

Rationale: Informed consent ensures participants voluntarily agree to participate with full knowledge of the study’s purpose, risks, and benefits. This principle safeguards participants’ rights and is central to research ethics.


16. Which of the following is an example of qualitative research data?

A. Household income levels B. National GDP figures C. Responses from focus group discussions D. Monthly inflation rates

Answer: C

Rationale: Qualitative data is descriptive and non-numeric, such as opinions or perceptions gathered from interviews and focus groups. Income, GDP, and inflation are quantitative, expressed in numerical values.


17. Which financial concept explains the decrease in purchasing power of money over time?

A. Compound interest B. Inflation C. Liquidity D. Depreciation

Answer: B

Rationale: Inflation directly reduces the purchasing power of money as prices of goods and services increase. Compound interest relates to growth of investments, liquidity to ease of converting assets, and depreciation to asset value loss.


18. What is the main advantage of using secondary data in research?

A. It is inexpensive and time-saving B. It ensures absolute accuracy  C. It eliminates the need for analysis D. It guarantees originality

Answer: A

Rationale: Secondary data, such as government reports or published studies, saves time and resources because it already exists. However, it may not be fully accurate or specific, so researchers must carefully evaluate its relevance.


19. In economic development, the Human Development Index (HDI) measures:

A. Only income per capita B. Total government expenditure C. Health, education, and income dimensions   D. The rate of inflation

Answer: C

Rationale: HDI is a composite index that considers life expectancy (health), education levels, and per capita income. It provides a broader picture of development compared to GDP alone.


20. Which of the following is the BEST method to reduce researcher bias?

A. Ignoring contradictory data   B. Limiting sample size C. Choosing supportive participants only D. Using random sampling techniques

Answer: D

Rationale: Random sampling reduces bias by giving all individuals in the population an equal chance of selection. This improves objectivity and validity of findings compared to selective or biased sampling.


21. Which of the following is considered a limitation of GDP as a measure of national welfare?

A. It measures production accurately B. It ignores income distribution and social well-being C. It is widely used internationally D. It accounts for market activities

Answer: B

Rationale: GDP focuses on economic output but ignores distribution of income, environmental impact, and social indicators. Thus, it cannot fully reflect welfare or quality of life.


22. In project planning, a logical framework (logframe) is used mainly to:

A. Eliminate risks B. Establish clear objectives, activities, and indicators C. Replace financial budgeting D. Shorten implementation time

Answer: B

Rationale: A log frame provides a structured approach to project planning by outlining goals, objectives, activities, outputs, and measurable indicators. It enhances clarity and accountability in project execution.


23. Which of the following is the MOST reliable sampling method for achieving representativeness?

A. Random sampling   B. Convenience sampling   C. Judgmental sampling D. Snowball sampling

Answer: A

Rationale: Random sampling ensures every individual in the population has an equal chance of selection, enhancing representativeness and reducing bias compared to non-probability methods.


24. Which financial ratio best measures an institution’s ability to meet short-term obligations?

A. Debt-to-equity ratio B. Current ratio C. Return on investment D. Price-to-earnings ratio

Answer: B

Rationale: The current ratio compares current assets to current liabilities, showing the institution’s capacity to cover short-term obligations. Other ratios measure leverage, profitability, or market value.


25. In hypothesis testing, the probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis is called:

A. Type I error B. Type II error C. Confidence level D. Power of the test

Answer: A

Rationale: Type I error occurs when a true null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected. Type II error is failing to reject a false null, confidence level reflects certainty, and power measures the ability to detect true effects.


26. Which of the following BEST defines economic development as distinct from economic growth?

A. Increase in GDP per capita only  B. Expansion of export earnings   C. Quantitative and qualitative improvement in living standards   D. Increase in government revenues

Answer: C

Rationale: Economic development refers to both quantitative (income, GDP) and qualitative (education, health, equality) improvements in people’s lives, while economic growth mainly reflects output increase.


27. Which type of research involves testing a theory or hypothesis under controlled conditions?

A. Experimental research B. Descriptive research C. Exploratory research D. Action research

Answer: A

Rationale: Experimental research manipulates variables in controlled conditions to test causal relationships. Descriptive and exploratory describe or explore phenomena, while action research solves immediate problems.


28. The OTR’s mandate in managing public investments requires research that focuses mainly on:

A. Entertainment value  B. Random observations C Personal opinions D. Evidence-based decision-making 

Answer: D

Rationale: Research in the OTR context must provide evidence-based findings to guide investment decisions, ensuring accountability and financial sustainability in managing public resources.


29. Which of the following is MOST important for ensuring validity in research findings?

A. Large sample size B. Proper research design C. Expensive data collection D. Speedy analysis

Answer: B

Rationale: Validity is achieved when a study accurately measures what it intends to measure. A sound research design underpins validity, regardless of cost, speed, or sample size.


30. In statistics, the median is:

A. The sum of values divided by number of observations B. The middle value when data is ordered C. The most frequently occurring value D. The square root of variance

Answer: B

Rationale: The median is the central value in an ordered dataset. The mean is the average, mode is the most frequent, and variance relates to dispersion. 

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